I was discussing an odd pronunciation of etc. with a friend when he told me that technically the most correct way to pronounce it based off Latin pronunciation rules would be something more like et KEH-tera.
I was wondering what led to the c being pronounced like an s in this Latin phrase but I wasn't able to find a question on here that had already answered this or anywhere else I looked, but if this was already answered in some form on this site I apologize for the redundancy.
Was this just due to modern pronunciation rules being applied to the phrase and eventually everyone was taught the pronunciation as et SEH-tera and it was accepted as such? Or is there a different reason?
